the universe potentially has a near infinite number of planets, we only have evidence of life on one of them. One divided by infinity is as near as zero as dammit, ergo there are no people in the universe
Printable View
No, the universe is of finite size and finite mass (some 10^53 kg) therefore while there might be countably infinite planets, there are in fact only a finite number.
It is one of the problems of the steady state theory, basically if the universe was infitiely large and old then there would be infinite number of stars, all of which would have had enough time for their light to reach earth so night would be blindingly light. (Olber's Paradox)
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedi...All_Points.gif
So we do exist? or at what point does the finite number get big enough for the original statement to be functionally true?
We do exist, but on average (or fermi estimation) we don't. (But the fermi estimation also gives me 1 leg...)
Depends what you are counting really. In all useful ways there are an infinite number, that is a countably infinite.
But the assumptions can lead to interesting things.
On aveage there are 3 hydrogen atoms per m^3, therefore nobody exists.
Alternatively, if there are infinite number of stars and each star has on average a planetary system there are several times infinite numbers of worlds, so an inifinite number must occur in habitable zones for life as we understand it so, infinite numbers of cultures!
Worth pointing out the other parts of the paradox too, as you covered why the universe couldn't be both infinitely large, and have been around forever, at the same time. But to really get the paradox going, one also needs to cover the other base(s) - it can't have *just* been around forever, without being infinitely large, because then it would have collapsed in on itself due to gravity (using the physical rules understood at the time of the paradox, which doesn't include dark energy and subsequent repulsive forces). The other option, that it is just infinitely big, but that it hasn't been around forever, then means that you'd need to have a theory for how it began.
Yeah like some cartoony "Big Bang"
But I thought that the lack of light everywhere was due to the redshift - the light shifts into infra-red where we lack the perceptions to see it, thus we only see that illumination which hasn't yet redshifted out of the visible spectrum. :confused:Quote:
It is one of the problems of the steady state theory, basically if the universe was infitiely large and old then there would be infinite number of stars, all of which would have had enough time for their light to reach earth so night would be blindingly light. (Olber's Paradox)
But what's to stop this infinite amount of light from dumping massive amounts of thermal energy and boiling the surface of the earth?